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NEW QUESTION 440
Which of the following is best defined as an administrative declaration by a designated authority that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security configuration with a prescribed set of safeguards?
- A. Certification
- B. Declaration
- C. Accreditation
- D. Audit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Accreditation: is an administrative declaration by a designated authority that an information system is approved to operate in a particular security configuration with a prescribed set of safeguards. It is usually based on a technical certification of the system's security mechanisms.
Certification: Technical evaluation (usually made in support of an accreditation action) of an information system\'s security features and other safeguards to establish the extent to which the system\'s design and implementation meet specified security requirements. Source: SHIREY, Robert W., RFC2828: Internet Security Glossary, may 2000.
NEW QUESTION 441
Which port does the Post Office Protocol Version 3 (POP3) make use of?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
The other answers are not correct because of the following protocol/port numbers matrix:
Post Office Protocol (POP2) 109 Network News Transfer Protocol 119 NetBIOS 139
NEW QUESTION 442
Which of the following would be true about Static password tokens?
- A. The owner will never be authenticated by the token.
- B. The owner identity is authenticated by the token
- C. The token does not authenticates the token owner but the system.
- D. The owner will authenticate himself to the system.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Access Control
Explanation/Reference:
Password Tokens
Tokens are electronic devices or cards that supply a user's password for them. A token system can be used to supply either a static or a dynamic password. There is a big difference between the static and dynamic systems, a static system will normally log a user in but a dynamic system the user will often have to log themselves in.
Static Password Tokens:
The owner identity is authenticated by the token. This is done by the person who issues the token to the owner (normally the employer). The owner of the token is now authenticated by "something you have". The token authenticates the identity of the owner to the information system. An example of this occurring is when an employee swipes his or her smart card over an electronic lock to gain access to a store room.
Synchronous Dynamic Password Tokens:
This system is a lot more complex then the static token password. The synchronous dynamic password tokens generate new passwords at certain time intervals that are synched with the main system. The password is generated on a small device similar to a pager or a calculator that can often be attached to the user's key ring.
Each password is only valid for a certain time period, typing in the wrong password in the wrong time period will invalidate the authentication. The time factor can also be the systems downfall. If a clock on the system or the password token device becomes out of synch, a user can have troubles authenticating themselves to the system.
Asynchronous Dynamic Password Tokens:
The clock synching problem is eliminated with asynchronous dynamic password tokens. This system works on the same principal as the synchronous one but it does not have a time frame. A lot of big companies use this system especially for employee's who may work from home on the companies VPN (Virtual private Network).
Challenge Response Tokens:
This is an interesting system. A user will be sent special "challenge" strings at either random or timed intervals.
The user inputs this challenge string into their token device and the device will respond by generating a challenge response. The user then types this response into the system and if it is correct they are authenticated.
Reference(s) used for this question:
http://www.informit.com/guides/content.aspx?g=security&seqNum=146
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 37.
NEW QUESTION 443
What is the primary goal of setting up a honeypot?
- A. To know when certain types of attacks are in progress and to learn about attack techniques so the network can be fortified.
- B. To set up a sacrificial lamb on the network
- C. To entrap and track down possible hackers
- D. To lure hackers into attacking unused systems
Answer: A
Explanation:
The primary purpose of a honeypot is to study the attack methods of an attacker for the purposes of understanding their methods and improving defenses.
"To lure hackers into attacking unused systems" is incorrect. Honeypots can serve as decoys but their primary purpose is to study the behaviors of attackers.
"To entrap and track down possible hackers" is incorrect. There are a host of legal issues around enticement vs entrapment but a good general rule is that entrapment is generally prohibited and evidence gathered in a scenario that could be considered as "entrapping" an attacker would not be admissible in a court of law.
"To set up a sacrificial lamb on the network" is incorrect. While a honeypot is a sort of sacrificial lamb and may attract attacks that might have been directed against production systems, its real purpose is to study the methods of attackers with the goals of better understanding and improving network defenses.
References AIO3, p. 213
NEW QUESTION 444
Which type of algorithm is considered to have the highest strength per bit of key length of any of the asymmetric algorithms?
- A. Rivest, Shamir, Adleman (RSA)
- B. Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC)
- C. Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)
- D. El Gamal
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Cryptography
Explanation/Reference:
The other answers are not correct because:
"Rivest, Shamir, Adleman (RSA)" is incorrect because RSA is a "traditional" asymmetric algorithm. While it is reasonably strong, it is not considered to be as strong as ECC based systems.
"El Gamal" is incorrect because it is also a "traditional" asymmetric algorithm and not considered as strong as ECC based systems.
"Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)" is incorrect because the question asks specifically about asymmetric algorithms and AES is a symmetric algorithm.
References:
Official ISC2 Guide page: 258
All in One Third Edition page: 638
The RSA Crypto FAQ: http://www.rsa.com/rsalabs/node.asp?id=2241
NEW QUESTION 445
Which of the following is most concerned with personnel security?
- A. Operational controls
- B. Management controls
- C. Technical controls
- D. Human resources controls
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Many important issues in computer security involve human users, designers, implementers, and managers.
A broad range of security issues relates to how these individuals interact with computers and the access and authorities they need to do their jobs. Since operational controls address security methods focusing on mechanisms primarily implemented and executed by people (as opposed to systems), personnel security is considered a form of operational control.
Operational controls are put in place to improve security of a particular system (or group of systems). They often require specialized expertise and often rely upon management activities as well as technical controls.
Implementing dual control and making sure that you have more than one person that can perform a task would fall into this category as well.
Management controls focus on the management of the IT security system and the management of risk for a system. They are techniques and concerns that are normally addressed by management.
Technical controls focus on security controls that the computer system executes. The controls can provide automated protection for unauthorized access of misuse, facilitate detection of security violations, and support security requirements for applications and data.
Reference use for this question:
NIST SP 800-53 Revision 4 http://dx.doi.org/10.6028/NIST.SP.800-53r4
You can get it as a word document by clicking HERE
NIST SP 800-53 Revision 4 has superseded the document below:
SWANSON, Marianne, NIST Special Publication 800-26, Security Self-Assessment Guide for Information Technology Systems, November 2001 (Page A-18).
NEW QUESTION 446
Which of the following remote access authentication systems is the most robust?
- A. PAP
- B. RADIUS
- C. TACACS
- D. TACACS+
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
TACACS+ is a proprietary Cisco enhancement to TACACS and is more robust than RADIUS. PAP is not a remote access authentication system but a remote node security protocol.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page
122).
NEW QUESTION 447
Which of the following is required in order to provide accountability?
- A. Audit trails
- B. Confidentiality
- C. Integrity
- D. Authentication
Answer: A
Explanation:
Accountability can actually be seen in two different ways:
1) Although audit trails are also needed for accountability, no user can be accountable for their actions unless properly authenticated.
2) Accountability is another facet of access control. Individuals on a system are responsible for their actions. This accountability property enables system activities to be traced to the proper individuals. Accountability is supported by audit trails that record events on the
system and network. Audit trails can be used for intrusion detection and for the
reconstruction of past events. Monitoring individual activities, such as keystroke monitoring,
should be accomplished in accordance with the company policy and appropriate laws.
Banners at the log-on time should notify the user of any monitoring that is being conducted.
The point is that unless you employ an appropriate auditing mechanism, you don't have
accountability. Authorization only gives a user certain permissions on the network.
Accountability is far more complex because it also includes intrusion detection,
unauthorized actions by both unauthorized users and authorized users, and system faults.
The audit trail provides the proof that unauthorized modifications by both authorized and
unauthorized users took place. No proof, No accountability.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Page 50.
The Shon Harris AIO book, 4th Edition, on Page 243 also states:
Auditing Capabilities ensures users are accountable for their actions, verify that the secutiy
policies are enforced,
and can be used as investigation tools. Accountability is tracked by recording user, system,
and application activities.
This recording is done through auditing functions and mechanisms within an operating
sytem or application.
Audit trail contain information about operating System activities, application events, and
user actions.
NEW QUESTION 448
Which of the following elements is NOT included in a Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)?
- A. Timestamping
- B. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
- C. Certificate revocation
- D. Repository
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Other elements are included in a PKI.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 4: Cryptography (page 165).
NEW QUESTION 449
Which of the following was designed as a more fault-tolerant topology than Ethernet, and very resilient when properly implemented?
- A. Token system.
- B. Token Ring.
- C. Token Link.
- D. Duplicate ring.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Token Ring was designed to be a more fault-tolerant topology than Ethernet,
and can be a very resilient topology when properly implemented.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the
Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 72.
NEW QUESTION 450
What works as an E-mail message transfer agent?
- A. SNMP
- B. SMTP
- C. S/MIME
- D. S-RPC
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) works as a message transfer agent.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2001, Page 821.
NEW QUESTION 451
Which of the following questions are least likely to help in assessing controls covering audit trails?
- A. Is there separation of duties between security personnel who administer the access control function and those who administer the audit trail?
- B. Are incidents monitored and tracked until resolved?
- C. Does the audit trail provide a trace of user actions?
- D. Is access to online logs strictly controlled?
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Analysis and Monitoring
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Audit trails maintain a record of system activity by system or application processes and by user activity. In conjunction with appropriate tools and procedures, audit trails can provide individual accountability, a means to reconstruct events, detect intrusions, and identify problems. Audit trail controls are considered technical controls. Monitoring and tracking of incidents is more an operational control related to incident response capability.
Reference(s) used for this question:
SWANSON, Marianne, NIST Special Publication 800-26, Security Self-Assessment Guide for Information Technology Systems, November 2001 (Pages A-50 to A-51).
NOTE: NIST SP 800-26 has been superceded By: FIPS 200, SP 800-53, SP 800-53A You can find the new replacement at: http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/PubsSPs.html However, if you really wish to see the old standard, it is listed as an archived document at:
http://csrc.nist.gov/publications/PubsSPArch.html
NEW QUESTION 452
Kerberos can prevent which one of the following attacks?
- A. tunneling attack.
- B. playback (replay) attack.
- C. destructive attack.
- D. process attack.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Each ticket in Kerberos has a timestamp and are subject to time expiration to help prevent these types of attacks.
The following answers are incorrect:
tunneling attack. This is incorrect because a tunneling attack is an attempt to bypass security and access low-level systems. Kerberos cannot totally prevent these types of attacks.
destructive attack. This is incorrect because depending on the type of destructive attack, Kerberos cannot prevent someone from physically destroying a server.
process attack. This is incorrect because with Kerberos cannot prevent an authorzied individuals from running processes.
NEW QUESTION 453
A copy of evidence or oral description of its contents; which is not as reliable as best evidence is what type of evidence?
- A. Secondary evidence
- B. Circumstantial evidence
- C. Hearsay evidence
- D. Direct evidence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
Secondary evidence is a copy of evidence or oral description of its contents; not as reliable as best evidence Here are other types of evidence:
Best evidence - original or primary evidence rather than a copy of duplicate of the evidence Direct evidence - proves or disproves a specific act through oral testimony based on information gathered through the witness's five senses Conclusive evidence - incontrovertible; overrides all other evidence Opinions - two types: Expert - may offer an opinion based on personal expertise and facts, Non-expert - may testify only as to facts Circumstantial evidence - inference of information from other, immediate, relevant facts Corroborative evidence - supporting evidence used to help prove an idea or point; used as a supplementary tool to help prove a primary piece of evidence Hearsay evidence (3rdparty) - oral or written evidence that is presented in court that is second hand and has no firsthand proof of accuracy or reliability (i) Usually not admissible in court (ii) Computer generated records and other business records are in hearsay category (iii) Certain exceptions to hearsay rule:
(1) Made during the regular conduct of business and authenticated by witnesses familiar with their use (2) Relied upon in the regular course of business (3) Made by a person with knowledge of records (4) Made by a person with information transmitted by a person with knowledge (5) Made at or near the time of occurrence of the act being investigated (6) In the custody of the witness on a regular basis Reference:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 310.
and
CISSP for Dummies, Peter Gregory, page 270-271
NEW QUESTION 454
How many rounds are used by DES?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
DES is a block encryption algorithm using 56-bit keys and 64-bit blocks that are divided in half and each character is encrypted one at a time. The characters are put through 16 rounds of transposition and substitution functions. Triple DES uses 48 rounds.
Source: WALLHOFF, John, CBK#5 Cryptography (CISSP Study Guide), April 2002 (page 3).
NEW QUESTION 455
The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 2, what type of data is contained within the IP datagram?
- A. IGMP.
- B. TCP.
- C. ICMP.
- D. UDP.
Answer: A
Explanation:
If the protocol field has a value of 2 then it would indicate it was IGMP.
The following answers are incorrect:
TCP. Is incorrect because the value for a TCP protocol would be 6. UDP. Is incorrect because the value for an UDP protocol would be 17. ICMP. Is incorrect because the value for an ICMP protocol would be 1.
NEW QUESTION 456
What can be defined as an event that could cause harm to the information systems?
- A. A vulnerability
- B. A weakness
- C. A threat
- D. A risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Risk, Response and Recovery
Explanation/Reference:
A threat is an event or activity that has the potential to cause harm to the information systems. A risk is the probability that a threat will materialize. A vulnerability, or weakness, is a lack of a safeguard, which may be exploited by a threat, causing harm to the information systems.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 1: Access Control Systems (page 32).
NEW QUESTION 457
Which cable technology refers to the CAT3 and CAT5 categories?
- A. Axial cables
- B. Coaxial cables
- C. Fiber Optic cables
- D. Twisted Pair cables
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
Twisted Pair cables currently have two categories in common usage. CAT3 and CAT5.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 72.
NEW QUESTION 458
Which of the following statements pertaining to a security policy is incorrect?
- A. Its main purpose is to inform the users, administrators and managers of their obligatory requirements for protecting technology and information assets.
- B. It must be flexible to the changing environment.
- C. It specifies how hardware and software should be used throughout the organization.
- D. It needs to have the acceptance and support of all levels of employees within the organization in order for it to be appropriate and effective.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Security Operation Adimnistration
Explanation/Reference:
A security policy would NOT define how hardware and software should be used throughout the organization. A standard or a procedure would provide such details but not a policy.
A security policy is a formal statement of the rules that people who are given access to anorganization's technology and information assets must abide. The policy communicates the security goals to all of the users, the administrators, and the managers. The goals will be largely determined by the following key tradeoffs:
services offered versus security provided, ease of use versus security, and cost of security versus risk of loss.
The main purpose of a security policy is to inform the users, the administrators and the managers of their obligatory requirements for protecting technology and information assets.
The policy should specify the mechanisms through which these requirements can be met. Another purpose is to provide a baseline from which to acquire, configure and audit computer systems and networks for compliance with the policy. In order for a security policy to be appropriate and effective, it needs to have the acceptance and support of all levels of employees within the organization. A good security policy must:
* Be able to be implemented through system administration procedures, publishing of acceptable use guidelines, or other appropriate methods
* Be able to be enforced with security tools, where appropriate, and with sanctions, where actual prevention is not technically feasible
* Clearly define the areas of responsibility for the users, the administrators, and the managers
* Be communicated to all once it is established
* Be flexible to the changing environment of a computer network since it is a living document Reference(s) used for this question:
National Security Agency, Systems and Network Attack Center (SNAC),The 60 Minute Network Security Guide, February 2002, page 7.
or
A local copy is kept at:
https://www.freepracticetests.org/documents/The%2060%20Minute%20Network%20Security%20Guide.pdf
NEW QUESTION 459
Which of the following could be BEST defined as the likelihood of a threat agent taking advantage of a vulnerability?
- A. A residual risk
- B. A risk
- C. An exposure
- D. A countermeasure
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Risk is the likelihood of a threat agent taking advantage of a vulnerability and the corresponding business impact. If a firewall has several ports open , there is a higher likelihood that an intruder will use one to access the network in an unauthorized method.
The following answers are incorrect :
Residual Risk is very different from the notion of total risk. Residual Risk would be the risks that still exists after countermeasures have been implemented. Total risk is the amount of risk a company faces if it chooses not to implement any type of safeguard.
Exposure: An exposure is an instance of being exposed to losses from a threat agent.
Countermeasure: A countermeasure or a safeguard is put in place to mitigate the potential risk. Examples of countermeasures include strong password management , a security guard.
REFERENCES : SHON HARRIS ALL IN ONE 3rd EDITION
Chapter - 3: Security Management Practices , Pages : 57-59
NEW QUESTION 460
A Business Continuity Plan should be tested:
- A. Once a month.
- B. At least once every two years.
- C. At least once a year.
- D. At least twice a year.
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is recommended that testing does not exceed established frequency limits. For a plan to be effective, all components of the BCP should be tested at least once a year. Also, if there is a major change in the operations of the organization, the plan should be revised and tested not more than three months after the change becomes operational.
Source: BARNES, James C. & ROTHSTEIN, Philip J., A Guide to Business Continuity Planning, John Wiley & Sons, 2001 (page 165).
NEW QUESTION 461
Layer 4 of the OSI stack is known as:
- A. the transport layer
- B. the data link layer
- C. the presentation layer
- D. the network layer
Answer: A
Explanation:
Source: TIPTON, Hal, (ISC)2, Introduction to the CISSP Exam presentation.
NEW QUESTION 462
What is the MOST critical piece to disaster recovery and continuity planning?
- A. Staff training
- B. Management support
- C. Availability of backup information processing facilities
- D. Security policy
Answer: B
Explanation:
The keyword is ' MOST CRITICAL ' and the correct answer is ' Management Support ' as the management must be convinced of its necessity and that's why a business case must be made. The decision of how a company should recover from any disaster is purely a business decision and should be treated as so.
The other answers are incorrect because :
Security policy is incorrect as it is not the MOST CRITICAL piece.
Availability of backup information processing facilities is incorrect as this comes once the organization has BCP Plans in place and for a BCP Plan , management support must be there.
Staff training comes after the plans are in place with the support from management. Reference : Shon Harris , AIO v3 , Chapter-9: Business Continuity Planning , Page : 697.
NEW QUESTION 463
Which TCSEC level is labeled Controlled Access Protection?
- A. C3
- B. C1
- C. C2
- D. B1
Answer: C
Explanation:
C2 is labeled Controlled Access Protection.
The TCSEC defines four divisions: D, C, B and A where division A has the highest security.
Each division represents a significant difference in the trust an individual or organization can place on the evaluated system. Additionally divisions C, B and A are broken into a series of hierarchical subdivisions called classes: C1, C2, B1, B2, B3 and A1.
Each division and class expands or modifies as indicated the requirements of the immediately prior division or class. D - Minimal protection
Reserved for those systems that have been evaluated but that fail to meet the requirements for a higher division
C - Discretionary protection
C1 - Discretionary Security Protection Identification and authentication Separation of users and data Discretionary Access Control (DAC) capable of enforcing access limitations on an individual basis Required System Documentation and user manuals C2 - Controlled Access Protection More finely grained DAC Individual accountability through login procedures Audit trails Object reuse Resource isolation
B - Mandatory protection
B1 - Labeled Security Protection Informal statement of the security policy model Data sensitivity labels Mandatory Access Control (MAC) over selected subjects and objects Label exportation capabilities All discovered flaws must be removed or otherwise mitigated Design specifications and verification B2 - Structured Protection Security policy model clearly defined and formally documented DAC and MAC enforcement extended to all subjects and objects Covert storage channels are analyzed for occurrence and bandwidth Carefully structured into protection-critical and non-protection-critical elements Design and implementation enable more comprehensive testing and review Authentication mechanisms are strengthened Trusted facility management is provided with administrator and operator segregation Strict configuration management controls are imposed B3 - Security Domains Satisfies reference monitor requirements Structured to exclude code not essential to security policy enforcement Significant system engineering directed toward minimizing complexity Security administrator role defined Audit security-relevant events Automated imminent intrusion detection, notification, and response Trusted system recovery procedures Covert timing channels are analyzed for occurrence and bandwidth An example of such a system is the XTS-300, a precursor to the XTS-400
A - Verified protection
A1 - Verified Design Functionally identical to B3 Formal design and verification techniques including a formal top-level specification Formal management and distribution procedures An example of such a system is Honeywell's Secure Communications Processor SCOMP, a precursor to the XTS-400 Beyond A1 System Architecture demonstrates that the requirements of self-protection and completeness for reference monitors have been implemented in the Trusted Computing Base (TCB). Security Testing automatically generates test-case from the formal top-level specification or formal lower-level specifications. Formal Specification and Verification is where the TCB is verified down to the source code level, using formal verification methods where feasible. Trusted Design Environment is where the TCB is designed in a trusted facility with only trusted (cleared) personnel.
The following are incorrect answers:
C1 is Discretionary security
C3 does not exists, it is only a detractor
B1 is called Labeled Security Protection.
Reference(s) used for this question:
HARE, Chris, Security management Practices CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0, april
1999.
and
AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 357 - 361)
AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 358 - 362)
NEW QUESTION 464
......
The (ISC)2 Systems Security Certified Practitioner certification exam validates the candidates’ technical abilities to monitor, administer, and implement IT infrastructure using security policy, procedures, and best practices according to the principles provided by cybersecurity experts.
Here is the Certification Path of ISC SSCP Exam
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ISC SSCP Dumps describes that to qualify, an applicant must meet all of the following criteria:
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For example, if you have a computer science or computer engineering degree, you must have studied at an accredited university with a focus on information systems security. Candidates are required to have completed a minimum of seventy (70) hours of training in the topics like Coursework in information systems security, Incident handling, Ethical hacking, Digital forensics, Social engineering, the Security assessment in information systems, Vulnerability assessment in information systems, Cryptography for network events and controls at the network layer or higher, Cryptography for application events and controls at the application layer or higher, Cryptography for data at data layer or higher. Candidates must pass the ISC Certified Penetration Tester (CPT) certification exam.
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