PCCET Practice Exam Tests Latest Updated on Nov-2021
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NEW QUESTION 25
Which analysis detonates previously unknown submissions in a custom-built, evasion-resistant virtual environment to determine real-world effects and behavior?
- A. Bare-metal
- B. Static
- C. Dynamic
- D. Pre-exploit protection
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 26
What does SIEM stand for?
- A. Security Infosec and Event Management
- B. Standard Installation and Event Media
- C. Secure Infrastructure and Event Monitoring
- D. Security Information and Event Management
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 27
In which two cloud computing service models are the vendors responsible for vulnerability and patch management of the underlying operating system? (Choose two.)
- A. On-premises
- B. IaaS
- C. SaaS
- D. PaaS
Answer: C,D
NEW QUESTION 28
What does Palo Alto Networks Cortex XDR do first when an endpoint is asked to run an executable?
- A. check its execution policy
- B. send the executable to WildFire
- C. run a static analysis
- D. run a dynamic analysis
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 29
Why is it important to protect East-West traffic within a private cloud?
- A. East-West traffic contains more threats than other traffic
- B. All traffic contains threats, so enterprises must protect against threats across the entire network
- C. East-West traffic contains more session-oriented traffic than other traffic
- D. East-West traffic uses IPv6 which is less secure than IPv4
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 30
When signature-based antivirus software detects malware, what three things does it do to provide protection?
(Choose three.)
- A. remove the infected file's extension
- B. decrypt the infected file using base64
- C. delete the infected file
- D. alert system administrators
- E. quarantine the infected file
Answer: A,C,E
NEW QUESTION 31
Which aspect of a SaaS application requires compliance with local organizational security policies?
- A. Vulnerability scanning and management
- B. Data-at-rest encryption standards
- C. Types of physical storage media used
- D. Acceptable use of the SaaS application
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 32
Which key component is used to configure a static route?
- A. router ID
- B. next hop IP address
- C. enable setting
- D. routing protocol
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 33
What is a key advantage and key risk in using a public cloud environment?
- A. Multiplexing
- B. Multi-tenancy
- C. Dedicated Networks
- D. Dedicated Hosts
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 34
Data Loss Prevention (DLP) and Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) fall under which Prisma access service layer?
- A. Network
- B. Cloud
- C. Management
- D. Security
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 35
Which endpoint tool or agent can enact behavior-based protection?
- A. Cortex XDR
- B. AutoFocus
- C. MineMeld
- D. DNS Security
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 36
In which step of the cyber-attack lifecycle do hackers embed intruder code within seemingly innocuous files?
- A. delivery
- B. exploitation
- C. reconnaissance
- D. weaponization
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 37
Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?
- A. DaaS
- B. SaaS
- C. IaaS
- D. PaaS
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 38
In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)
- A. Initial Research
- B. Content Engineering
- C. Change Control
- D. Breach Response
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION 39
During the OSI layer 3 step of the encapsulation process, what is the Protocol Data Unit (PDU) called when the IP stack adds source (sender) and destination (receiver) IP addresses?
- A. Segment
- B. Data
- C. Packet
- D. Frame
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 40
An Administrator wants to maximize the use of a network address. The network is 192.168.6.0/24 and there are three subnets that need to be created that can not overlap. Which subnet would you use for the network with 120 hosts?
Requirements for the three subnets: Subnet 1: 3 host addresses
Subnet 2: 25 host addresses
Subnet 3: 120 host addresses
- A. 192.168.6.160/29
- B. 192.168.6.0/25
- C. 192.168.6.168/30
- D. 192.168.6.128/27
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 41
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