New 2023 Latest Questions N10-008 Dumps - Use Updated CompTIA Exam [Q239-Q259]

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New 2023 Latest Questions N10-008 Dumps - Use Updated CompTIA Exam

Latest N10-008 Exam Dumps CompTIA Exam from Training Expert ValidTorrent

NEW QUESTION # 239
At which of the following OSI model layers would a technician find an IP header?

  • A. Layer 2
  • B. Layer 3
  • C. Layer 1
  • D. Layer 4

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 240
A user reports being unable to access network resources after making some changes in the office. Which of the following should a network technician do FIRST?

  • A. Do a ping test against the servers
  • B. Ask what changes were made
  • C. Reseat the cables into the back of the PC
  • D. Check the system's IP address

Answer: B

Explanation:
When a user reports being unable to access network resources after making some changes, the network technician should first ask the user what changes were made. This information can help the technician identify the cause of the issue and determine the appropriate course of action.


NEW QUESTION # 241
An engineer is gathering data to determine the effectiveness of UPSs in use at remote retail locations. Which of the following statistics can the engineer use to determine the availability of the remote network equipment?

  • A. Interface statistics
  • B. NetFlow baseline
  • C. Uptime
  • D. SNMP traps

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
Uptime is a statistic that can be used to determine the availability of the remote network equipment. Uptime is the amount of time that a device or system has been running without experiencing any failures or disruptions.
It is commonly expressed as a percentage of total time, such as 99.99% uptime. By measuring the uptime of the network equipment at the remote retail locations, the engineer can determine how reliable and available the equipment is.


NEW QUESTION # 242
A company is moving to a new building designed with a guest waiting area that has existing network ports.
Which of the following practices would BEST secure the network?

  • A. Lower the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage in the waiting area.
  • B. Ensure all guests sign an NDA.
  • C. Enable MAC filtering to block unknown hardware addresses.
  • D. Disable unneeded switchports in the area.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
One of the best practices to secure the network would be to disable unneeded switchports in the guest waiting area. This will prevent unauthorized users from connecting to the network through these ports. It's important to identify which switchports are not in use and disable them, as this will prevent unauthorized access to the network.
Other practices such as ensuring all guests sign an NDA, lowering the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage in the waiting area and enabling MAC filtering to block unknown hardware addresses are not as effective in securing the network as disabling unneeded switchports. Enforcing an NDA with guests may not stop a malicious user from attempting to access the network, reducing the radio strength only limits the Wi-Fi coverage, and MAC filtering can be easily bypassed by hackers.


NEW QUESTION # 243
Which of the following is the MOST cost-effective alternative that provides proper cabling and supports gigabit Ethernet devices?

  • A. Twisted cable with a minimum Cat 5e certification
  • B. Twinaxial cabling using an F-type connector
  • C. Multimode fiber with an SC connector
  • D. Cable termination using TIA/EIA-568-B

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 244
A technician is installing the Wi-Fi infrastructure for legacy industrial machinery at a warehouse. The equipment only supports 802.11a and 802.11b standards. Speed of transmission is the top business requirement. Which of the following is the correct maximum speed for this scenario?

  • A. 144Mbps
  • B. 11Mbps
  • C. 54Mbps
  • D. 128Mbps

Answer: C

Explanation:
802.11b (Wi-Fi 1)
11 Mbps
100 meter maximum effective range
802.11a (Wi-Fi 2)
54 Mbps
50 meter maximum effective range


NEW QUESTION # 245
Within the realm of network security, Zero Trust:

  • A. prevents attackers from moving laterally through a system.
  • B. block malicious software that is too new to be found in virus definitions.
  • C. stops infected files from being downloaded via websites.
  • D. allows a server to communicate with outside networks without a firewall.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Zero Trust is a security framework that requires all users, whether in or outside the organization's network, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated for security configuration and posture before being granted or keeping access to applications and data. Zero Trust prevents attackers from moving laterally through a system by applying granular policies and controls based on the principle of least privilege and by segmenting and encrypting data flows across the network. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0), https://www.crowdstrike.com/cybersecurity-101/zero-trust-security/


NEW QUESTION # 246
Which of the following is a system that is installed directly on a server's hardware and abstracts the hardware from any guest machines?

  • A. Storage array
  • B. Guest QS
  • C. Virtual machine
  • D. Type 1 hypervisor

Answer: D

Explanation:
A type 1 hypervisor is a system that is installed directly on a server's hardware and abstracts the hardware from any guest machines. A hypervisor is a software layer that enables virtualization by creating and managing virtual machines (VMs) on a physical host. A type 1 hypervisor, also known as a bare-metal hypervisor or a native hypervisor, runs directly on the host's hardware without requiring an underlying operating system (OS). It provides better performance and security than a type 2 hypervisor, which runs on top of an existing OS and relies on it for hardware access. Reference: https://www.vmware.com/topics/glossary/content/hypervisor


NEW QUESTION # 247
A large number of PCs are obtaining an APIPA IP address, and a number of new computers were added to the network. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the PCs to obtain an APIPA address?

  • A. Network collision
  • B. Incorrect DNS settings
  • C. DHCP scope exhaustion
  • D. Rogue DHCP server

Answer: C

Explanation:
DHCP scope exhaustion means that there are no more available IP addresses in the DHCP server's pool of addresses to assign to new devices on the network. When this happens, the devices will use APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) to self-configure an IP address in the range of 169.254.0.1 to 169.254.255.2541. These addresses are not routable and can only communicate with other devices on the same local network.
A rogue DHCP server (A) is an unauthorized DHCP server that can cause IP address conflicts or security issues by assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. A network collision (B) is a situation where two or more devices try to send data on the same network segment at the same time, causing interference and data loss.
Incorrect DNS settings can prevent devices from resolving domain names to IP addresses, but they do not affect the DHCP process.


NEW QUESTION # 248
Which of the following is used to prioritize Internet usage per application and per user on the network?

  • A. Border Gateway Protocol
  • B. Load balance routing
  • C. Bandwidth management
  • D. Administrative distance

Answer: C

Explanation:
Bandwidth management is used to prioritize Internet usage per application and per user on the network. This allows an organization to allocate network resources to mission-critical applications and users, while limiting the bandwidth available to non-business-critical applications. Reference: Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Operations


NEW QUESTION # 249
Which of the following is used to provide disaster recovery capabilities to spin up an critical devices using internet resources?

  • A. Cold site
  • B. Cloud site
  • C. Hot site
  • D. Warm site

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 250
Which of the following would enable a network technician to implement dynamic routing?

  • A. A hub
  • B. An IPS
  • C. A bridge
  • D. A Layer 3 switch

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 251
A network administrator is investigating a performance issue on a dual-link connection-VPN and MPLS-to a partner network. The MPLS is the primary path, and the VPN is used as a backup. While communicating, the delay is measured at 18ms, which is higher than the 6ms expected when the MPLS link is operational but lower than the 30ms expected tor the VPN connection. Which of the following will MOST likely point to the root cause of the Issue?

  • A. Checking the routing tables on both sides to ensure there is no asymmetric routing
  • B. Checking on the partner network for a missing route pointing to the VPN connection
  • C. Running iPerf on both sides to confirm the delay that Is measured is accurate
  • D. Checking for an incorrect VLAN assignment affecting the MPLS traffic

Answer: A

Explanation:
Asymmetric routing can occur when two routers have different paths for the same two hosts, resulting in increased latency and possible packet loss. According to the CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, "If the path from the source to the destination is not the same in both directions, the packets will take different routes and the latency can increase significantly." To confirm this, the network administrator should check the routing tables on both sides of the connection and ensure that the same path is used in both directions.


NEW QUESTION # 252
A network technician is configuring a wireless access point and wants to only allow company-owned devices to associate with the network. The access point uses PSKs, and a network authentication system does not exist on the network. Which of the following should the technician implement?

  • A. Guest network isolation
  • B. Geofencing
  • C. Captive portal
  • D. MAC filtering

Answer: D

Explanation:
MAC filtering is a method of allowing only company-owned devices to associate with the network by using their MAC addresses as identifiers. A MAC address is a unique identifier assigned to each network interface card (NIC) by the manufacturer. MAC filtering can be configured on the wireless access point to allow or deny access based on the MAC address of the device. This way, only devices with known MAC addresses can connect to the network. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 323)


NEW QUESTION # 253
Which of the following is most likely to have the HIGHEST latency while being the most accessible?

  • A. DSL
  • B. Satellite
  • C. 4G
  • D. Cable

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 254
A user reports a weak signal when walking 20ft (61 m) away from the WAP in one direction, but a strong signal when walking 20ft in the opposite direction The technician has reviewed the configuration and confirmed the channel type is correct There is no jitter or latency on the connection Which of the following would be the MOST likely cause of the issue?

  • A. Encryption type
  • B. Frequency
  • C. Power levels
  • D. Antenna type

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 255
A network technician is installing new software on a Windows-based server in a different geographical location. Which of the following would be BEST for the technician to use to perform this task?

  • A. SSH
  • B. RDP
  • C. DNS
  • D. FTP

Answer: B

Explanation:
RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) is the best option for a network technician to use when installing new software on a Windows-based server in a different geographical location. This protocol allows the technician to connect to the server remotely and control it as if they were physically present.
Reference:
Network+ N10-007 Certification Exam Objectives, Objective 2.2: Given a scenario, implement the appropriate network-based security and troubleshoot common connectivity issues.


NEW QUESTION # 256
A company's primary ISP is experiencing an outage. However, the network administrator notices traffic continuing to flow through a secondary connection to the same ISP. Which of the following BEST describes this configuration?

  • A. Diverse paths
  • B. Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol
  • C. Multipathing
  • D. Load balancing

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 257
Which of the following is MOST likely to generate significant East-West traffic in a datacenter?

  • A. A query from an IoT device to a cloud-hosted server for a firmware update
  • B. A download of navigation data to a portable device for offline access
  • C. A duplication of a hosted virtual server to another physical server for redundancy
  • D. A backup of a large video presentation to cloud storage for archival purposes

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 258
A fiber link connecting two campus networks is broken. Which of the following tools should an engineer use to detect the exact break point of the fiber link?

  • A. Fusion splicer
  • B. Tone generator
  • C. PoE injector
  • D. Cable tester
  • E. OTDR

Answer: E

Explanation:
To detect the exact break point of a fiber link, an engineer should use an OTDR (Optical Time Domain Reflectometer). This device sends a series of pulses into the fiber, measuring the time it takes for the pulses to reflect back, and can pinpoint the exact location of the break.
Reference:
Network+ N10-007 Certification Exam Objectives, Objective 2.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot copper cable issues.
FS: OTDR (Optical Time Domain Reflectometer) Testing Principle and Applications


NEW QUESTION # 259
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One of the key benefits of the CompTIA N10-008 certification is that it covers a wide range of network technologies, protocols, and tools. This includes topics such as network architecture, network security, cloud computing, virtualization, and wireless networking, among others. N10-008 exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and skills in a variety of scenarios, including configuring and managing network devices, troubleshooting network issues, implementing security protocols, and designing network solutions that meet business requirements.


In addition to providing a strong foundation for a career in the IT industry, the CompTIA Network+ certification is also a vendor-neutral certification, meaning it is not tied to any specific technology or hardware. This makes it a valuable certification for professionals who want to work with a variety of technologies and hardware in different organizations.


CompTIA Network+ certification is widely recognized in the IT industry and is considered a valuable credential for IT professionals who work with networking technologies. CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam certification is vendor-neutral, which means that it is not tied to any specific vendor or technology. This makes the certification suitable for professionals who work with different types of networking technologies and want to demonstrate their proficiency in networking concepts and technologies. Additionally, the certification is a prerequisite for several advanced certifications in networking, such as the Cisco CCNP and the Juniper Networks Certified Specialist.

 

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