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NEW QUESTION # 126
A mother brings her 1-month-old infant for routine health examination. The infant was born at term with no complications. He is exclusively breastfed every 3-4 hours and growth parameters are normal. His mother tells you that feedings are difficult (the baby cries any time she tries to put him down) and that she is exhausted. Her husband has been on a military mission since the infant was 2-weeks-old. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
- A. Reassure that this is a normal phase.
- B. Increase the frequency of the feeds.
- C. Inquire about symptoms of depression.
- D. Suggest a switch to hypoallergenic infant formula.
- E. Refer to a lactation consultant.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The most appropriate next step is to screen for postpartum depression . MCCQE objectives emphasize the importance of assessing maternal mental health at routine infant visits, particularly in the first months postpartum. This mother reports exhaustion, difficulty coping, and limited social support (husband deployed), all of which are risk factors for postpartum depression. Although infant growth is normal and frequent crying at 1 month can be physiologic (e.g., colic/normal infant behavior), the key clinical issue is maternal distress and functional impairment.
Postpartum depression can present with fatigue, irritability, sleep disturbance beyond expected newborn care, feelings of being overwhelmed, and impaired bonding. Early identification through targeted questioning or validated screening tools (e.g., Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale) allows timely intervention, which benefits both mother and infant.
Simply reassuring her may miss significant depressive symptoms. Increasing feeds or switching formula is not indicated with normal growth and no allergy signs. Lactation referral may help feeding mechanics but does not address maternal psychological well-being. Therefore, screening for depression is the priority.
NEW QUESTION # 127
A 70-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of dysuria and right flank pain. Upon arrival, she is quite unwell. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 70/38 mm Hg, heart rate
130/min, respiratory rate 24/min, temperature 39.4 °C.
Due to difficulty obtaining peripheral access, a central line is inserted. There is a lot of ongoing bleeding around the line insertion site. Her blood work shows:
White blood cell count: 19.8 × 10#/L (4-10)
Hemoglobin: 101 g/L (123-157)
Platelets: 85 × 10#/L (130-400)
Blood film: schistocytes
INR: 1.9 (0.9-1.2)
Fibrinogen: < 1 g/L (2-4)
Which one of the following is the most likely cause of her ongoing bleeding?
- A. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura.
- B. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
- C. Vitamin K deficiency.
- D. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
- E. Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Answer: E
Explanation:
This patient is in septic shock, likely from pyelonephritis, with hypotension, tachycardia, and fever. Her laboratory findings demonstrate thrombocytopenia (platelets 85 × 10#/L), elevated INR, very low fibrinogen (
< 1 g/L), and schistocytes on blood film, along with active bleeding from the central line site. These findings are classic for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing DIC as a complication of severe sepsis. In DIC, systemic activation of coagulation leads to widespread microthrombi formation and consumption of platelets and clotting factors (consumptive coagulopathy), resulting in both thrombosis and bleeding. Low fibrinogen and prolonged INR are key distinguishing features.
ITP causes isolated thrombocytopenia without coagulation abnormalities. TTP presents with thrombocytopenia and schistocytes but typically has normal coagulation studies. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia requires prior heparin exposure and does not cause elevated INR or low fibrinogen.
Vitamin K deficiency causes prolonged INR but does not produce thrombocytopenia or schistocytes.
Thus, DIC secondary to sepsis is the most likely cause of her bleeding.
NEW QUESTION # 128
An 8-year-old girl is brought by her father to the office with a 2-week history of red, itchy, and watery eyes.
She is otherwise healthy. On examination, there is no discharge or difficulty with vision. Pupil examination findings are normal. The patient's eyes are shown in the referenced photo. Which one of the following topical therapies is the best recommendation?
- A. Antifungal.
- B. Antiviral.
- C. Antihistamine.
- D. Antibiotic.
- E. Glucocorticoid.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This child presents with bilateral red, itchy, watery eyes for 2 weeks without purulent discharge, pain, or visual changes-classic features of allergic conjunctivitis . MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing allergic conjunctivitis from infectious causes. Allergic conjunctivitis is characterized by pruritus (key symptom), tearing, conjunctival injection, and often a history of atopy or seasonal triggers. Vision remains normal, and there is no mucopurulent discharge (which would suggest bacterial infection) or vesicular lesions
/dendritic ulcers (suggesting viral/herpetic causes).
Topical antihistamines (often combined with mast cell stabilizers) are first-line therapy and effectively reduce itching and redness by blocking histamine-mediated inflammation.
Topical antibiotics are unnecessary without bacterial features. Antivirals are reserved for suspected herpetic disease. Antifungals are rarely indicated in routine conjunctivitis. Topical glucocorticoids are not first-line and may cause adverse effects (e.g., increased intraocular pressure) and should only be used under ophthalmologic supervision.
Therefore, a topical antihistamine is the most appropriate initial treatment.
NEW QUESTION # 129
A 50-year-old man with prostate cancer, which is complicated by bony and cerebral metastases, presents to your office. He has a 24-hour history of increasing lower back pain and weakness in his legs. On examination, you note decreased knee and ankle reflexes on both sides. Earlier today he had fecal incontinence. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Consult to radiotherapy.
- B. Stellate ganglion block.
- C. Dose of parenteral steroids.
- D. Bed rest with subcutaneous analgesia.
- E. Consult to surgery.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient with known metastatic prostate cancer presents with acute back pain, bilateral lower limb weakness, decreased reflexes, and new fecal incontinence-classic red flags for malignant spinal cord compression . MCCQE objectives emphasize that this is an oncologic emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent irreversible neurologic damage.
The first step is prompt administration of high-dose parenteral corticosteroids (e.g., dexamethasone) to reduce vasogenic edema around the spinal cord and preserve neurologic function. Steroids should be given immediately upon suspicion, even before confirmatory imaging. Urgent MRI of the spine and consultation with oncology, radiation oncology, and/or neurosurgery follow for definitive management (radiotherapy or surgical decompression depending on stability and prognosis).
Bed rest and analgesia alone are inadequate. A stellate ganglion block is unrelated. Although radiotherapy or surgery will likely be required, steroids must be administered first without delay. Early treatment significantly improves the likelihood of maintaining ambulation and continence.
NEW QUESTION # 130
A 67-year-old man underwent his first endoscopy. He has long-term reflux and heartburn, treatedintermittently with antacids. Biopsies of the distal esophagus reveal Barrett epithelium. Which one of the following is most important in determining the frequency of surveillance endoscopy?
- A. Stricture formation
- B. Family history of gastrointestinal malignancy
- C. Length of Barrett segment
- D. Depth of intestinal metaplasia
- E. Grade of dysplasia
Answer: E
Explanation:
The most important factor in determining the surveillance interval in Barrett esophagus is the presence and grade of dysplasia (e.g., none, low-grade, high-grade). High-grade dysplasia requires more frequent monitoring or intervention due to the risk of progression to esophageal adenocarcinoma.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, Barrett Esophagus:
"Surveillance intervals depend on histologic findings. No dysplasia: q3-5 years; low-grade: q6-12 months; high-grade: consider endoscopic resection or ablation." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Gastroenterology:
"Candidates must identify the risk of progression in Barrett esophagus and apply appropriate surveillance strategies based on dysplasia." Length of the segment (A) may influence risk but not surveillance frequency alone. Other options (B, C, E) are less determinative.
NEW QUESTION # 131
You are travelling on a transatlantic flight. Halfway through the flight, an older passenger (# 65 years) begins to have chest pain and shortness of breath. An announcement is made over the intercom asking for help from any physicians or medical personnel. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Offer assistance and document the encounter in your own records afterwards.
- B. Offer assistance only after the patient and the airline agree to release you from any liability.
- C. Give advice to the flight attendants on how to proceed but do not offer any direct assistance.
- D. Remain silent to avoid any liability that may be incurred by offering help.
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Canada and in most jurisdictions internationally, physicians have a professional and in some cases legal obligation to provide emergency assistance. Documentation should be done in your own records afterward.
Aviation laws and Good Samaritan protections offer liability coverage for health professionals acting in good faith.
Toronto Notes 2023 - ELOM, "Physician Obligations and Medical-Legal Responsibility":
"Physicians should respond to in-flight or public emergencies when capable. Documentation should be completed after the event, and liability is protected under Good Samaritan laws." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > Professionalism > 90-1):
"Candidates must demonstrate appropriate professional behavior, including willingness to assist in emergencies and understanding of legal protections." Avoiding assistance (A), or placing conditional barriers (D), is unethical and inappropriate.
NEW QUESTION # 132
A 38-year-old woman, gravida 3, para 2, aborta 0, presents to the labour and delivery unit for induction of labour. Her pregnancy is at 42 weeks' gestation and has been uncomplicated to date. Which one of the following is the most appropriate information to provide to the patient?
- A. Prostaglandin induction of labour is contraindicated.
- B. Cesarean delivery is preferred.
- C. Continuous electronic fetal monitoring in labour is recommended.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient has a post-term pregnancy (#42 weeks' gestation). Post-term pregnancies are associated with increased risks including placental insufficiency, oligohydramnios, meconium aspiration, fetal macrosomia, and stillbirth. During induction and labour in post-term pregnancies, continuous electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) is recommended to assess fetal well-being and detect signs of fetal distress early.
Prostaglandin induction is not contraindicated; it is commonly used for cervical ripening when indicated, provided there are no standard contraindications (e.g., prior classical cesarean). Cesarean delivery is not routinely preferred solely due to post-term status; mode of delivery should be based on obstetric indications.
According to MCCQE objectives, candidates must recognize the risks associated with post-term pregnancy and understand appropriate intrapartum management, including fetal surveillance. Continuous EFM is recommended in higher-risk situations such as post-term gestation to optimize perinatal outcomes while still aiming for safe vaginal delivery when no contraindications exist.
NEW QUESTION # 133
A 40-year-old woman has not left her house for 6 months. She says that she is trying to avoid the intense anxiety, palpitations, tremors, sweating, dizziness, choking sensation, and breathlessness that develops when she leaves home. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Prescription of chlorpromazine in moderate doses.
- B. Hospitalization for observation.
- C. Encouragement to take walks of increasing distance.
- D. A trial of lithium carbonate.
- E. Reassurance that this is not a serious disorder.
Answer: C
Explanation:
This patient's symptoms are consistent with panic disorder with agoraphobia , characterized by recurrent panic attacks and avoidance of places where escape may be difficult. She has avoided leaving her home for 6 months due to fear of panic symptoms (palpitations, tremors, sweating, dyspnea, choking sensation), which is classic for agoraphobia.
MCCQE objectives emphasize that first-line management includes cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) with graded exposure therapy , which involves gradual, systematic exposure to feared situations (e.g., short walks progressing to longer distances). Encouraging incremental exposure directly addresses avoidance behavior and reduces anxiety over time.
Lithium is used for bipolar disorder, not panic disorder. Chlorpromazine (an antipsychotic) is not first-line and carries unnecessary side effects. Reassurance alone is insufficient because panic disorder significantly impairs functioning. Hospitalization is not indicated unless there is suicidality or inability to care for oneself.
Therefore, gradual exposure through increasing walks is the most appropriate next step, consistent with evidence-based management of panic disorder with agoraphobia.
NEW QUESTION # 134
A 26-year-old man presents to your office with fever, chills, and malaise. Aside from an episode of dysuria 8 weeks ago, which spontaneously resolved, he has been healthy. On examination, his left wrist and right ankle are tender. There is a cluster of vesiculopustular lesions on his right hand. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Reactive arthritis
- B. Varicella
- C. Disseminated gonococcemia
- D. Rheumatoid arthritis
- E. Primary HIV infection syndrome
Answer: C
Explanation:
Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) typically presents with the classic triad of polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, and skin lesions (especially pustules on extremities). A prior urogenital infection and systemic symptoms further support this diagnosis.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Infectious Disease, STIs:
"DGI presents with arthritis-dermatitis syndrome: fever, asymmetric polyarthralgia, tenosynovitis, and vesiculopustular skin lesions. It may follow asymptomatic or unrecognized urogenital infection." MCCQE1 Objectives - Infectious Disease > STIs:
"Candidates must recognize systemic manifestations of gonorrhea including DGI and distinguish it from other forms of arthritis or systemic illness." Reactive arthritis (C) may follow STI but includes conjunctivitis and urethritis. HIV (A) does not typically cause this triad. RA (D) has different distribution and chronicity. Varicella (E) presents with diffuse vesicular rash, not joint pain.
NEW QUESTION # 135
A 76-year-old man is brought by his family to your clinic with new-onset urinary incontinence. They state that the patient is experiencing a slowly progressing cognitive decline marked by memory disturbance, apathy, and attentional problems. Examination reveals that the patient has a stooped, forward-leaning posture and a wide-based gait. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Lewy body dementia
- B. Parkinson disease
- C. Alzheimer disease
- D. Frontotemporal dementia
- E. Normal pressure hydrocephalus
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
This patient presents with the classic triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH): gait disturbance (often wide-based and magnetic), cognitive decline, and urinary incontinence. The combination, especially with the gait being most prominent, is highly suggestive.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Geriatrics / Neurology:
"NPH presents with gait disturbance, dementia, and urinary incontinence. Gait is typically broad-based and magnetic. Imaging shows ventriculomegaly without elevated pressure." MCCQE1 Objectives (Geriatrics > 41-1: Cognitive Disorders):
"Candidates must identify NPH and distinguish it from other dementias based on clinical triad and gait features." Alzheimer's (B) primarily presents with memory loss. Parkinson's (A) has bradykinesia and rigidity. Lewy body dementia (C) includes visual hallucinations and fluctuating cognition. FTD (E) has personality and behavioral changes.
NEW QUESTION # 136
A 38-year-old man presents to the office for a follow-up visit. For several years, he has been having constant abdominal pain and intermittent constipation. He struggles to fall asleep because he is worried about his symptoms, and he often spends hours researching possible investigations and causes. Although he recently had extensive investigations, which have all had normal results, he continues to visit multiple physicians hoping for more investigations. He worries that he will die because no one is taking him seriously. Which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Consult general internal medicine.
- B. Schedule monthly appointments to discuss the patient's concerns.
- C. Repeat investigations to confirm the results are unchanged.
- D. Prescribe a regular exercise routine.
Answer: B
Explanation:
This presentation is most consistent with somatic symptom disorder/illness anxiety : persistent distressing physical symptoms (abdominal pain/constipation) with excessive health-related anxiety, repeated reassurance- seeking, and "doctor shopping" despite normal investigations. MCCQE objectives emphasize avoiding iatrogenic harm from repeated testing and using a structured, therapeutic relationship to manage medically unexplained or disproportionate symptom concerns. The best next step is regularly scheduled follow-up visits with one consistent physician (e.g., monthly), focused on validating symptoms, addressing fears, monitoring for new objective findings, and gradually shifting toward coping strategies and functional goals. This approach reduces unnecessary investigations, reinforces continuity, and helps interrupt the cycle of anxiety- driven health-care utilization.
Repeating investigations (B) perpetuates reassurance-seeking and increases false positives and harm.
Consulting additional specialists (A) without new red flags similarly reinforces maladaptive beliefs and fragmentation of care. Exercise (D) may be beneficial as an adjunct but is not the core management strategy.
Therefore, planned, regular appointments are the most appropriate next step.
NEW QUESTION # 137
A 32-year-old woman, gravida 0, comes to your office for contraception counselling, specifically about insertion of a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device. She has a past history of breast cancer and is presently on tamoxifen. Which one of the following is the best advice for your patient?
- A. After consultation with her oncologist, she may choose this option
- B. She will require pre-procedure antibiotics
- C. This device will increase her risk of future infertility
- D. It may increase her risk of breast cancer recurrence
- E. She has a high risk of irregular bleeding following insertion
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (LNG-IUD) is generally contraindicated in current or recent breast cancer due to the progestin component, but may be considered in selectpatients on tamoxifen, especially if non-hormonal options are unsuitable. Consultation with the oncologist is required to evaluate risks and benefits.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gynecology, "Contraception in Special Populations":
"Levonorgestrel IUDs are generally avoided in patients with a history of hormone-sensitive cancers; however, decisions should be made collaboratively with oncology." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gynecology > 82-2: Contraception):
"Candidates must tailor contraceptive advice to patients with medical comorbidities, including cancer survivors." Irregular bleeding (A) is a common but not contraindicating side effect. No pre-procedure antibiotics (D) are typically needed. The IUD does not cause infertility (E). Risk of recurrence (C) is unconfirmed and must be individualized.
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NEW QUESTION # 138
A 79-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset severe chest and back pain that started 1 hour ago. She has a history of hypertension and looks unwell. Her vital signs are as follows:
blood pressure 168/108 mm Hg, heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 22/min, temperature 36.7°C. Findings of a physical examination of the chest and abdomen are normal. An urgent computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest and abdomen shows an aortic dissection extending from the descending thoracic aorta to the upper abdominal aorta. The branches of the abdominal aorta are patent. Following initial resuscitation, which one of the following is the best next step?
- A. Immediate surgical repair.
- B. Start thrombolytic therapy.
- C. Insert an intra-aortic balloon pump.
- D. Begin intravenous beta-blocker therapy.
- E. Begin anticoagulation with heparin.
Answer: D
Explanation:
This patient has a Stanford type B aortic dissection (involving the descending thoracic aorta distal to the left subclavian artery). MCCQE objectives emphasize distinguishing type A (ascending aorta) from type B dissections because management differs. Type A requires urgent surgical repair , whereas uncomplicated type B dissections are managed medically .
The immediate priority after diagnosis is aggressive blood pressure and heart rate control to reduce shear stress on the aortic wall. Intravenous beta-blockers (e.g., labetalol or esmolol) are first-line to lower heart rate (target ~60 bpm) and systolic blood pressure (typically 100-120 mm Hg), thereby reducing dP/dt and limiting propagation of the dissection. Vasodilators may be added after beta-blockade if needed.
Thrombolytics and anticoagulation are contraindicated because they increase risk of catastrophic bleeding. An intra-aortic balloon pump is also contraindicated. Surgical or endovascular intervention is reserved for complications (rupture, malperfusion, refractory pain, uncontrolled hypertension). This case describes an uncomplicated type B dissection; therefore, IV beta-blockade is the best next step.
NEW QUESTION # 139
You are treating a 78-year-old man for recent onset of diarrhea, tenesmus, and minor bleeding when he wipes.
He has a history of prostate cancer that was treated by radiotherapy. Rectal examination findings are normal.
Colonoscopy reveals a pale rectum with ulcerations and areas of mucosal hemorrhage. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this clinical presentation?
- A. Diverticulosis
- B. Radiation proctitis
- C. Ulcerative colitis
- D. Recurrent prostate cancer
- E. Rectal cancer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Radiation proctitis is a well-known complication of pelvic radiation therapy (e.g., for prostate cancer). It presents months to years after treatment with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, and mucosal ulceration on colonoscopy.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Gastroenterology, "Radiation-Induced GI Injury":
"Radiation proctitis presents with rectal bleeding, tenesmus, urgency. Colonoscopy shows pale, friable mucosa, ulcerations, and telangiectasia." MCCQE1 Objectives (Gastroenterology > 47-2: GI Bleeding and Complications):
"Candidates must recognize radiation proctitis based on history of radiation and characteristic endoscopic findings." Ulcerative colitis (B) usually starts younger and is more diffuse. Diverticulosis (C) affects the left colon and causes painless bleeding. Recurrent prostate cancer (D) and rectal cancer (E) would show mass or infiltration.
NEW QUESTION # 140
A 29-year-old woman presents to the sexually transmitted infection clinic with concerns regarding a copious vaginal discharge. Ten percent potassium hydroxide was used to confirm the diagnosis of which one of the following?
- A. Bacterial vaginosis.
- B. Trichomonas vaginalis.
- C. Chlamydia trachomatis.
- D. Gonorrhea.
- E. Group B streptococcus.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A 10% potassium hydroxide (KOH) preparation is commonly used in the evaluation of vaginal discharge. In bacterial vaginosis (BV) , adding KOH to a vaginal sample produces a characteristic "whiff test" -a strong fishy amine odor caused by volatilization of amines from anaerobic bacteria (e.g., Gardnerella vaginalis and other anaerobes). MCCQE objectives emphasize recognition of BV as the most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in reproductive-age women. Clinical features include thin, gray-white, malodorous discharge without significant inflammation.
KOH microscopy may also reveal clue cells (vaginal epithelial cells coated with bacteria).
Trichomonas vaginalis is diagnosed by saline wet mount showing motile trichomonads or by nucleic acid amplification testing (NAAT), not primarily by KOH. Chlamydia trachomatis and gonorrhea are diagnosed by NAAT. Group B streptococcus is identified by culture.
Thus, use of 10% KOH to confirm a fishy odor (positive whiff test) supports the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis .
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NEW QUESTION # 141
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