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NEW QUESTION # 34
Why might Connector CPU pinning be recommended on multi-tenant boxes?
- A. Prevents noisy neighbors affecting real-time traffic threads
- B. Lowers license count per CPU socket
- C. Allows TLS version selection per core
- D. Reduces SIEM export latency
Answer: A
Explanation:
CPU isolation guards performance.
NEW QUESTION # 35
You must ensure that log shipping continues if the primary SIEM endpoint fails.
What is the correct setup?
- A. Switch to UDP transport to permit lossy delivery
- B. Store logs only on the Connector until manual export
- C. Enable log truncation on failure
- D. Configure multiple syslog destinations with priority order
Answer: D
Explanation:
Multiple destinations provide automatic failover.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which best practice helps maintain Connector certificate hygiene?
- A. Rotate Connector certificates every 90 days and automate renewal alerts
- B. Share one certificate across all Connectors in a Site
- C. Disable OCSP stapling on Connector certificates
- D. Issue self-signed certificates to reduce third-party dependency
Answer: A
Explanation:
Regular rotation with alerting prevents expiry issues.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which feature enforces data-loss prevention for files uploaded via WebDAV?
- A. Threat Intelligence URL categorization
- B. Cloud SWG inline scanning tied to ZTNA tunnel
- C. Agent posture check with file hash comparison
- D. SIEM regex alert post-processing
Answer: B
Explanation:
SWG inspects file content over ZTNA tunnels.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Which two actions are mandatory when onboarding a new Site to support agent-based access and Cloud SWG policy enforcement?
- A. Associate the Site's DNS suffix with the enterprise IDP
- B. Register at least one Connector behind the Site's firewall
- C. Map the Site to a dedicated Collection with RBAC-scoped admins
- D. Disable SIEM streaming until onboarding is complete
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
A Connector enables traffic brokering, and DNS association ensures agent-based policy routing; pausing SIEM or RBAC scoping is optional.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which two Time-Based Access scenarios are natively supported?
- A. Shift-based user access windows
- B. Sun-set-sun-rise geofence rules
- C. Per-session NAT port rotation
- D. Calendar-triggered Policy exemptions
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
Policies can use time schedules; NAT port rotation is unrelated.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which logging capability helps detect unsanctioned policy changes?
- A. Export of raw DLP incidents via REST API
- B. SIEM field masking
- C. Admin Audit Trail with immutable timestamps
- D. Real-time packet captures on the Connector
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Admin Audit Trail records every policy edit with integrity protection.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which benefits of Symantec's SASE solution directly address the shortcomings of traditional perimeter firewalls?
- A. Cloud-native scalability without back-haul
- B. Inline CASB shadow-IT discovery
- C. Identity-centric access decisions
- D. Route-based IPsec mesh tunneling
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
SASE shifts to identity-driven, cloud-native enforcement; CASB discovery is part of SWG, and IPsec meshes belong to legacy SD-WAN, not core SASE.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Finally, what is the primary objective of Symantec ZTNA within the broader SASE framework?
- A. Grant application-level access based on continuous, context-aware evaluation
- B. Serve as on-prem firewall management console
- C. Provide global MPLS replacement
- D. Replace email security gateways
Answer: A
Explanation:
ZTNA delivers granular, adaptive access-the core of Zero-Trust within SASE.
NEW QUESTION # 43
When integrating ZTNA with Cloud DLP, why should sensitive-data policies be enforced at the application layer rather than the Site layer?
- A. Reduces Connector CPU utilization
- B. Avoids duplicate log entries in SIEM
- C. Enables granular data handling per application context
- D. Ensures RBAC inheritance across Collections
Answer: C
Explanation:
Application-level enforcement applies the most precise control to data transactions.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which two tasks are automatically logged when a Site is deleted from the Admin Console?
- A. OS-level syslog entry on each Connector
- B. List of applications orphaned by the deletion
- C. SIEM alert with severity "Medium"
- D. Tenant Admin username performing the action
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Audit trail records actor and impact; OS syslog and SIEM severity depend on integration.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which two data points does Risk Analytics combine to produce a user risk score?
- A. Connector CPU utilization
- B. External threat-intel matches
- C. SIEM storage quota
- D. UEBA anomaly patterns
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
Analytics merges behavior and threat context.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which step is required to enable continuous posture validation on managed Mac devices using Symantec ZTNA?
- A. Enable custom OIDC scopes within the IDP
- B. Force the Connector into transparent proxy mode
- C. Add the Mac serial numbers to a trusted-device list
- D. Install the Symantec Agent and configure health check frequency in the Admin Console
Answer: D
Explanation:
The agent performs posture checks at an interval defined in Console settings.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A security analyst notices high latency for traffic inspected by Cloud SWG.
Which two tunings can reduce latency without compromising security?
- A. Disable TLS inspection on all traffic
- B. Use regional Connectors to shorten route path
- C. Enable selective bypass for low-risk SaaS domains
- D. Increase Site-to-Connector MTU above 1500 bytes
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
Regional Connectors and selective bypass improve performance; oversized MTU and blanket TLS disablement are ineffective or risky.
NEW QUESTION # 48
What distinguishes Symantec ZTNA's Application Segmentation from traditional network segmentation?
- A. Segmentation requires static ACLs on internal firewalls
- B. Policy enforcement occurs on the client only
- C. Segments rely on site-to-site VPN tunnels
- D. Decisions are user-, device-, and application-aware, not subnet-centric
Answer: D
Explanation:
ZTNA bases segmentation on identity and context rather than network topology.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which function does the Site Redundancy Score represent?
- A. Measurement of active Connectors vs. policy-defined min count
- B. Time taken for DNS to propagate split-horizon changes
- C. Percentage of Sites using agentless apps only
- D. Ratio of audit events to policy events
Answer: A
Explanation:
Score reflects connector redundancy health.
NEW QUESTION # 50
A DevOps team requests temporary shell access to an internal build server.
Which ZTNA capability can grant least-privilege, time-bound access?
- A. Just-in-time (JIT) Policy with expiry timer
- B. Connector NAT exception list
- C. SIEM-triggered token refresh
- D. Permanent addition to privileged IDP group
Answer: A
Explanation:
JIT policies allow precise, time-limited access without long-term group changes.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Why might you keep Legacy VPN active in parallel during initial ZTNA go-live?
- A. Reduces SIEM license costs
- B. Enables Connector GRE encapsulation
- C. Allows TLS 1.0 traffic
- D. Provides temporary fallback while confidence builds
Answer: D
Explanation:
Gradual transition needs rollback path.
NEW QUESTION # 52
Which action best mitigates shadow-IT file-sharing over personal cloud drives?
- A. Enable GeoIP blocklists
- B. Policy condition "Application Category = File Sharing" THEN Block
- C. Disable agentless mode entirely
- D. Increase Connector MTU to fragment packets
Answer: B
Explanation:
Category-based policy blocks unsanctioned drives.
NEW QUESTION # 53
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